I thought this was an interesting perspective on a topic that is popular in some patriarchal circles. The curious thing, though, is that it was indeed common not only for wives to verbally adress their husbands as "my lord" (my adon/master) but to address those in positions of authority in the same way (Hannah addresses the Cohen Gadol/High Priest as "my lord", Rebekah addresses Abraham's servant at the well as "my lord", and indeed men of lesser rank address other men as "my lord" as well as well as, of course, Deity). This was common usage and was always addressed to men of both men and women. The only conclusion that one can come to is that this was simply a term of respect - of showing defference - in the same way that we say "Sir".

There is, however, no equivalent of "Ma'am" or "Madam" in the Bible. At least i have not been able to find one. How, then, did men show respect to their women-folk? There is no question that they did because Torah, amongst other things, commands that children honour/respect their parents with a promise that if they do they will live long in the land. If the men were shown respect by being called "Adon/Master/Lord", usually accompanied by bowing or prostration, how were women honoured and respected?

We are accustomed to thinking through a Western mindframe here and so what happens is that Bible students go looking for titles like Ma'am, My lady, Mistress, Your Highness, and such. But there is no parallel to Adon in Hebrew. There is no doubt that women of rank over other women were known as "mistresses" but there is no title of address for such. What, then, was the title of address in Biblical times? And what was the example that Yah'shua used?


Yah'shua to His Own Mother

John 2:3-4
3 And when they ran out of wine, the mother of Yah'shua said to Him, "They have no wine." 4 Yah'shua said to her, "Woman, what does your concern have to do with Me? My hour has not yet come."
NKJV



Angels/Malakim to Mary Magdalene

John 20:12-13
13 Then they said to her, "Woman, why are you weeping?"
NKJV

Yah'shua to Mary Magdalene

John 20:15
"Woman, why are you weeping? Whom are you seeking?"
NKJV

Yah'shua to the Woman He Healed of Bleeding

Luke 13:12-13
"Woman, you are loosed from your infirmity."
NKJV

The Woman Caught in Adultery

John 8:10-11
"Woman, where are those accusers of yours? Has no one condemned you?" 11 She said, "No one, Lord/Master/Adon."
NKJV


To the Samaritan Woman

John 4:21
21 Yah'shua s said to her, "Woman, believe Me, the hour is coming when you will neither on this mountain, nor in Jerusalem, worship the Father.
NKJV

Peter to an Accuser

Luke 22:57-58
57 But he denied Him, saying, "Woman, I do not know Him."
NKJV

We see here that the title "Woman" was used of both women whose names were known as well as those whose names were not in both Old and New Testaments.

Why, then, are men not simply addressed as "Man"? And is it true that women were only supposed to address their husbands respectfully? Patently not. The same title is used of all: "My lord/master/adon". This was done whether they had any direct authority over the woman or not.

Similarly, all women were addressed in the same way - either by their first names (if they were close family friends or relatives - Yah'shua addressed Mary and Martha by their first names) - or as "Woman". Now if I were to address one of the sisters, or any woman, today as "Woman" the chances are great offence would be taken. Why? And especially 'why' if we keep on professing that we will only be bound by the rules of Scripture?

"Sir" and "Ma'am" are clearly equivalents in English but are "master" and "woman" equivalents in Hebrew? Obviously not otherwise the men would be addressed as "man".

Continued....

In Christianity as well as Messianism it is common to address fellow believers as "brother" or "sister" and whilst there is no reported direct speech of the same in the Scriptures it is everywhere implied because of the equality of the genders in terms of salvation and worth. This was true even of masters and slaves toward one another - they regarded one another as "brothers" and treated each other the same way. Or at least that is what Paul instructed slaver-owners to do, admonishing slaves to work as though they were working for Yah'shua Himself.

There was, and is, the the Gospel functional headship and functional submission, but in the Ruach/Spirit mutual submission (in and to truth). Yah'shua warned:

Matt 20:25-28
"You know that the rulers of the Gentiles lord it over them, and those who are great exercise authority over them. 26 Yet it shall not be so among you; but whoever desires to become great among you, let him be your servant. 27 And whoever desires to be first among you, let him be your slave-- 28 just as the Son of Man did not come to be served, but to serve, and to give His life a ransom for many."
NKJV

This functional headship took many forms but specifically, and most importantly, husbands over their wives (a wife was considered as a part of her husband and was to be treated as such). And even though other rulers and authorities did not have a direct functional headship over married and unmarried women, the women neverthless addressed those men by the same title to show respect. Reciprocally, the men addressed all women in the same way as "Woman" (Heb. ishshah) because the word is totally connected to the ish (man) from whom she comes and to whom she bis bound. It's an acknowledgement of who the ishshah belongs to. Thus when Yah'shua called His own mother, 'Mother', He was pointing back to the ish of whom she was the ishshah - Joseph.

I am not sure what we should address the sisters as (apart from 'sister') but I do believe there is a wonderful and glorious truth hidden up in this ancient form of address which glorifies the marriage estate and the mystery of the Echad Unity of the Father and the Ruach. Why is She addressed as "the Ruach"? Is it the same way we adress sisters as "Woman"? Why is her Name not revealed? Has it to do with a level of intimacy reserved by the Husband?

These are questions I am asking.